coolestguy4u2

Is Renting Legal In London

8 posts in this topic

Helos!

I was wondering if rending a room in a flat in London to different traveling independent escorts on a temporary/day basis legal or not? Ofcourse I would be earning money from such an arrangement and would that in anyway be illegal? Am not much of a legal person hence since answer without any jargons would be extremely appreciated.

Thank you in advance! Cheers!! :D

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London has very little unique status - it is not Washington DC, Canberra or Brasilia! The law relating to prostitution in London is the law of England and Wales.

Try: Sexual Offences Act 1956

  • Section 33, keeping a brothel;
  • Section 34, a landlord letting premises for use as a brothel;
  • Section 35, a tenant permitting premises to be used as a brothel.
  • Section 36, a tenant permitting premises to be used for prostitution.

And, yet again, have you had the nous to look at CPS very useful guidance on the subject? It isn't that difficult to Google "CPS Prostitution", but to save you the hassle, try http://www.cps.gov.uk/legal/p_to_r/prostitution_and_exploitation_of_prostitution/#aa01

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It would be a brothel, even if only one girl worked there at any one time. Potentially therefore that could make you liable under section 34 SOA 1956 - (see Irgendeiner's post) - and probably sections 35 and 36 as well.

You've also got to consider:

1. Money laundering and Proceeds of Crime Act 2002.

2. Breach of mortgage conditions, if you have a mortgage.

3. Possible forfeiture of your own lease.

The police/CPS may consider it not in the public interest to charge a flat owner struggling to meet their mortgage repayments and who lets their flat to a single prostitute. They may well take a different view of someone who sees a way of charging over the odds by letting the premises to various girls as a brothel in the way that you suggest.

If you're the tenant of a flat which has a long lease and nominal rent then it will almost certainly have a capital value. If you're letting the flat as a brothel then you'd probably in breach of the terms of your own lease which could mean that the landlord could commence forfeiture proceedings. There's a further twist ! Effectively it's very difficult to defend forfeiture in the case of brothels because of the immorality/tainted property aspects.There's case law on the point. That's even where the use has effectively ceased.

So it's a bit of a windfall for the landlord. The landlord (whether an individual, investment company or management company) gets the premises back, free of your mortgage. However, you'd still owe the money to the building society or bank - assuming of course that there was a mortgage.

I wouldn't recommend it

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If you have a mortgage on the property you would certainly be in breach of their T's & C's. They could fore close with minimal notice in such circumstances.

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There's a further twist ! Effectively it's very difficult to defend forfeiture in the case of brothels because of the immorality/tainted property aspects.There's case law on the point. That's even where the use has effectively ceased.

Rugby School v Tannahill if I remember rightly? As taught at the College of Law it was suggested that the brothel was at the school gates and might taint the little dears. In fact it was in Harley St or Wimpole St, and, today, I suspect, worth an absolute mint! Poor Mrs Tannahill.

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Thanks a lot Irgendeiner and Silverado. Appreciate your quick inputs.

However, just to clear my understanding, i read the link so kindly given by Irgendeiner and it mentioned the following:

"Premises only become a brothel when more than one woman uses premises for the purposes of prostitution, either simultaneously or one at a time (Stevens v Christy [1987] Cr. App. R. 249, DC). This implies that if two women are present, both must be there for the purposes of prostitution. In circumstances where prostitutes are working individually out of one flat but there is a rotation of occupants and the young women are moved on a regular basis; i.e. sole occupancy and a rotation of sole occupants, it does constitute a brothel.

However, where rooms or flats in one building are let separately to different individuals offering sexual services; it may be treated as a brothel only if the individuals are effectively working together. "

Does it not mean that if i let the spare room to one person at a time only and if one and only one person is working at a time, then it would not be considered a brothel and hence the laws do not apply?? So ineffect there would be the escort, the client and myself in the flat at the given point in time, Not coming from a law background, yhis was one of the reason why I could not clearly understand the law and seeking help. Would highly appreciate if you can clarify this for me. I do not have to worry about the landlord though there is a mortgage on the flat, which isnt in my name.

Really appreciate your inputs and guidance. Thank you.

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Does it not mean that if i let the spare room to one person at a time only and if one and only one person is working at a time, then it would not be considered a brothel and hence the laws do not apply?? So ineffect there would be the escort, the client and myself in the flat at the given point in time,

No, it would still be a brothel.

Further useful information here:

http://oldestprof.co...s/1277-brothels

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